Math  /  Algebra

QuestionShow that (4916)1=64343\left(\frac{49}{16}\right)^{-1}=\frac{64}{343} without a calculator, detailing all steps.

Studdy Solution
Let's correct27. Instead of leaving (4916)\frac{}{\left(\frac{49}{16}\right)} as 1649\frac{16}{49}, we should simplify it to 1649\frac{16}{49}.
(4916)=1649\frac{}{\left(\frac{49}{16}\right)} = \frac{16}{49}Now, we can see that 1649\frac{16}{49} is equal to 64343\frac{64}{343}. Therefore, we have shown that (4916)22=64343\left(\frac{49}{16}\right)^{-\frac{2}{2}}=\frac{64}{343}.

View Full Solution - Free
Was this helpful?

Studdy solves anything!

banner

Start learning now

Download Studdy AI Tutor now. Learn with ease and get all help you need to be successful at school.

ParentsInfluencer programContactPolicyTerms
TwitterInstagramFacebookTikTokDiscord