Math  /  Calculus

QuestionDetermine over what interval(s) (if any) the Mean Value Theorem applies. (Enter your answer using interval notation. If an answer does not exist, enter DNE.) y=1x3y=\frac{1}{x^{3}} \square

Studdy Solution

STEP 1

What is this asking? We need to find the intervals where the Mean Value Theorem (MVT) can be used with the function y=1x3y = \frac{1}{x^3}. Watch out! The MVT has *two* key conditions!
Don't forget to check both!

STEP 2

1. Check for continuity
2. Check for differentiability
3. Find the intervals

STEP 3

Let's **investigate** the function y=1x3y = \frac{1}{x^3}.
Is it continuous everywhere?
Nope! There's a big, giant **discontinuity** at x=0x = 0.
Dividing by zero is a no-no!

STEP 4

Now, let's think about where our function is **differentiable**.
Well, since y=1x3y = \frac{1}{x^3} can be rewritten as y=x3y = x^{-3}, we can easily find its derivative: dydx=3x4\frac{dy}{dx} = -3x^{-4}, or dydx=3x4\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{-3}{x^4}.

STEP 5

Just like with continuity, this derivative has a **problem** at x=0x = 0.
So, our function is **not differentiable** at x=0x = 0.

STEP 6

The Mean Value Theorem applies when the function is **continuous** on a **closed interval**, [a,b][a, b], and **differentiable** on the **open interval**, (a,b)(a, b).

STEP 7

We know our function is **smooth and happy** everywhere *except* at x=0x = 0.
So, the MVT applies on any interval that *doesn't include* zero!

STEP 8

That means the MVT applies on (,0)(-\infty, 0) and (0,)(0, \infty).

STEP 9

The Mean Value Theorem applies on the intervals (,0)(-\infty, 0) and (0,)(0, \infty).

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