Math  /  Calculus

QuestionFind the Taylor series for f(x)f(x) centered at the given value of aa. [Assume that ff has a power series expansion. Do not show that Rn(x)0R_{n}(x) \rightarrow 0.] f(x)=sin(x),a=πf(x)=n=0()\begin{array}{r} f(x)=\sin (x), \quad a=\pi \\ f(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(\square) \end{array}
Find the associated radius of convergence, RR. \square R=R=

Studdy Solution

STEP 1

What is this asking? We need to find the Taylor series of sin(x)\sin(x) centered at a=πa = \pi and its radius of convergence. Watch out! Remember that the Taylor series centered at *a* is not the same as the Maclaurin series, which is centered at 0!

STEP 2

1. Derivatives of sine
2. Evaluate at pi
3. Assemble the Taylor series
4. Radius of convergence

STEP 3

Let's **start** by finding the derivatives of f(x)=sin(x)f(x) = \sin(x).
We'll need these for the Taylor series formula.

STEP 4

f(x)=sin(x) f(x) = \sin(x) f(x)=cos(x) f'(x) = \cos(x) f(x)=sin(x) f''(x) = -\sin(x) f(x)=cos(x) f'''(x) = -\cos(x) f(4)(x)=sin(x) f^{(4)}(x) = \sin(x) And the pattern repeats!

STEP 5

Now, we **evaluate** these derivatives at x=a=πx = a = \pi.

STEP 6

f(π)=sin(π)=0 f(\pi) = \sin(\pi) = 0 f(π)=cos(π)=1 f'(\pi) = \cos(\pi) = -1 f(π)=sin(π)=0 f''(\pi) = -\sin(\pi) = 0 f(π)=cos(π)=1 f'''(\pi) = -\cos(\pi) = 1 f(4)(π)=sin(π)=0 f^{(4)}(\pi) = \sin(\pi) = 0 The zero and one pattern also repeats, but with alternating signs!

STEP 7

The **Taylor series formula** is: f(x)=n=0f(n)(a)n!(xa)n f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{f^{(n)}(a)}{n!}(x-a)^n

STEP 8

Let's **plug in** our values, where a=πa = \pi: f(x)=f(π)0!(xπ)0+f(π)1!(xπ)1+f(π)2!(xπ)2+f(π)3!(xπ)3+ f(x) = \frac{f(\pi)}{0!}(x-\pi)^0 + \frac{f'(\pi)}{1!}(x-\pi)^1 + \frac{f''(\pi)}{2!}(x-\pi)^2 + \frac{f'''(\pi)}{3!}(x-\pi)^3 + \dots f(x)=011+11(xπ)+02(xπ)2+16(xπ)3+024(xπ)4+1120(xπ)5+ f(x) = \frac{0}{1} \cdot 1 + \frac{-1}{1}(x-\pi) + \frac{0}{2}(x-\pi)^2 + \frac{1}{6}(x-\pi)^3 + \frac{0}{24}(x-\pi)^4 + \frac{-1}{120}(x-\pi)^5 + \dots f(x)=(xπ)+16(xπ)31120(xπ)5+ f(x) = -(x-\pi) + \frac{1}{6}(x-\pi)^3 - \frac{1}{120}(x-\pi)^5 + \dots

STEP 9

We can **rewrite** this using summation notation.
Notice only the odd powers are present, and the signs alternate. f(x)=n=0(1)n+1(2n+1)!(xπ)2n+1 f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{(2n+1)!} (x-\pi)^{2n+1}

STEP 10

The **radius of convergence** for the Taylor series of sin(x)\sin(x) is **infinity**, regardless of the center.

STEP 11

This is because the sine function is **analytic** everywhere, meaning its Taylor series converges to the function's value for all xx.

STEP 12

The Taylor series for f(x)=sin(x)f(x) = \sin(x) centered at a=πa = \pi is: n=0(1)n+1(2n+1)!(xπ)2n+1 \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{(2n+1)!} (x-\pi)^{2n+1} The radius of convergence is R=R = \infty.

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