Questionoblem oblem oblem oblem 4 blem 5 blem blem blem 8 lem 9
Studdy Solution
STEP 1
What is this asking? We need to find the area under the line from to . Watch out! Don't forget that area below the x-axis counts as *negative*!
STEP 2
1. Find the antiderivative.
2. Evaluate the antiderivative at the boundaries.
3. Calculate the definite integral.
STEP 3
Let's **find the antiderivative** of our function .
Remember, the *power rule* for integration says that the antiderivative of is .
STEP 4
The antiderivative of (which is the same as ) is .
We multiplied by raised to the old power plus one, and then divided by the new power!
STEP 5
The antiderivative of (which is the same as ) is .
STEP 6
So, the **complete antiderivative** of is .
Don't forget the constant of integration, which we can write as .
Since we're doing a *definite* integral, the will disappear later, but it's good practice to include it!
STEP 7
Now, we **evaluate our antiderivative** at the **upper limit** of integration, which is .
Substituting into , we get .
STEP 8
Next, we **evaluate at the lower limit** of integration, .
Substituting into , we get .
STEP 9
To find the **definite integral**, we subtract the value of the antiderivative at the **lower limit** from the value at the **upper limit**.
STEP 10
So, we have .
See how the and add to zero?
This *always* happens with definite integrals!
STEP 11
The **final answer**, the definite integral of from to , is , or !
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